Actually, that's not true. In Florida a year or two ago, ~58% voted to legalize medical marijuana, but the vote needed 60% because it was a ballot initiative. How come the Florida reps didn't go ahead and do it themselves since obviously a majority of their electorate voted that way? It's about a lot more than the electorate.
More to the point, the 58% is the fraction of the people who feel strongly for or against the drug question. Those are likely not the same segment of the population that votes for the legislature, and neither group is representative of the population!
Then what the sibling comment above says would be my point also. 58% of people who voted on one issue is not going to be representative of those who vote in elections; ergo the candidates would be wrong to simply bypass the system and vote in an issue that hasn't otherwise passed.
I'd like to see more direct democracy though, more atomic voting to address issues individually; that would perhaps help in this situation.
How is what I said not true? The bar is said to 60%. I said 70% so it's actually easier than I thought.
You came up with a number that was close but not enough and you think that proves a point? Get the additional 20 out of every 1000 votes. The reason it's not 50% is because people don't want flip/flopping every few years.
