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When did it become a norm?


That has literally nothing to do with the question. Considering whether an action is acceptable only in an instance, or universally, is an extremely basic way of determining if it is morally correct. Do you think spez's actions can or should be made a norm?


Kant called this the categorical imperative: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Categorical_imperative - a philosophical statement about morality:

"Act only according to that maxim whereby you can, at the same time, will that it should become a universal law."


Correct (in the philosophical sense)

However hindsight is 20/20 and you can't make rules for everything

Wanting to make everything an universal law is missing the trees for the forest.

Because things change and situations change and what has worked before may not work anymore or have a detrimental effect.

Violence might not be moral, but it works.


Fine and all, but what exactly is the law here?


Thank you. That's exactly what I was thinking of, it's just late haha.


Is Falsely accusing people of being pedophiles for political gain an action that should be made a norm?


Do you actually think most people are questioning whether or not their witch hunt was the right thing to do? Jesus christ.




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