It's fairly well established that the mean IQ (i.e. g, or general intelligence factor) of people of African descent is lower than that of people of European descent, which is in turn lower than that of people of East Asian or Ashkenazi Jewish descent.
Quite apart from the argument you are proposing there - what does that have to do with skin color? Everybody that lives at the equator in all parts of the world have dark skin, it has nothing to do with if a person comes from Africa or not.
And it's not "fairly well established". Not in any way that one would deem scientific. It's fairly well established in the minds of bigots and in the minds of people who are looking to justify their denial of rights to certain groups of people, but it's not established in any meaningful way.
For example, take a look at the body of evidence showing that the earth is round. Now, using the same SCIENTIFIC criteria, show me the evidence that people of African descent are less intelligent than people of european descent - you'll find that the 'studies' that were done are very fuzzy, very open to intepretation, use very skewed sample size, and are not pure at all.
What you are really trying to say is that In tests conducted in the 70s with tiny groups of African-American people of mixed race, who came from long disadvantaged communities, there was a difference in problem solving ability according to a certain metric, compared to affluent children from educated homes.
The evidence is weak and very unscientific. If you REALLY want to prove that the IQ is lower, then I demand sample groups approaching 2000, I demand that the tests be taken in Africa, and written in an African language, I demand that the socio-economic backgrounds of the participants be the same or similar, and I demand that all questions related to verbal ability be removed from IQ tests.
IQ has not been measures properly, and having lived in several continents, nothing I have seen indicates to me that there is any significant difference in IQ between people living on different continents, once you factor in their family background.
But people like you once found a study that fitted in with your narrow perception, and you hang on to it like it was the holy grail. It's flawed, and it's an argument similar to creationism.
nothing I have seen indicates to me that there is any significant difference in IQ between people living on different continents, once you factor in their family background.
What if family background is ignored?
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I demand that all questions related to verbal ability be removed from IQ tests.
it appears that the variance [IQ subtests] share can be reliably and accurately indexed by reaction time on a task where subjects must merely press a lighted button. The correlations between such simple tasks and g is around .62, which is higher than the correlation between many subscales of IQ tests and the g factor to which they contribute.
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IQ has not been measures properly
Is that what you gleaned from studying those two books (both listed as ISI Citation Classics)?
What I glean from this discussion is that people who are obsessed with proving another people inferior in some regard are not people I want to associate with. Particularly when I belong to the subgroup they want to prove as being inferior.
I mean what's your point? What do you hope to gain by telling me that people like me are less intelligent than people like you? And how do you think it makes me feel to read that?
This is not an attack on you personally, nor is it an attempt to scientifically "prove" that all whites are smarter than all blacks, or some other such nonsense. I'm of European descent and I'm positive that for any given race/ancestry, you can find someone who is strictly smarter than I am (by any metric you want).
The point you're missing by interpreting our statements as personal attacks is that we're talking about group mean differences. And the reason this is relevant is that for the past 40 years in the United States, inequality of outcome has been taken as evidence of inequality of opportunity (i.e., lower average African-American and Hispanic educational/economic achievement is evidence of discrimination by whites), thereby justifying affirmative action and other forms of income redistribution. This is a perfectly reasonable conclusion if you assume that all races have an equal distribution of cognitive abilities. What we're trying to say is that this assumption is unfounded.
...Of what? Do you mean something like this?:
http://www.amazon.com/Bias-Mental-Testing-Arthur-Jensen/dp/0...
http://www.amazon.com/Factor-Science-Evolution-Behavior-Inte...