I think that at least it is not obvious that sucrose intake should be equivalent to invert sugar intake. In order for sucrose to be saccharified, the enzyme sucrase must be produced; in order for sucrase to be produced, some internal regulation must occur; if some internal regulation occurs, other effects are at least possible. But no such effect has been clearly demonstrated as far as I can tell.
https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/abs/pii/S00223... (unclear disaccharide effect of sucrose)
https://www.science.org/doi/abs/10.1126/science.493983 (unclear, but seemingly harmful, disaccharide effect of sucrose)
https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/abs/pii/S00223... (disaccharide effect of sucrose but not maltose)
https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s00394-011-0228-x (unclear, but seemingly beneficial, disaccharide effect of sucrose)
https://www.cambridge.org/core/journals/journal-of-developme... (unclear, but seemingly harmful, disaccharide effect of sucrose)
https://onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/abs/10.1002/hipo.22368 (very surprising beneficial disaccharide effect of sucrose that should require further confirmation)
https://journals.plos.org/plosmedicine/article?id=10.1371/jo... (John Ioannidis, Why Most Published Research Findings are False, cold shower to the preceding)
I think that at least it is not obvious that sucrose intake should be equivalent to invert sugar intake. In order for sucrose to be saccharified, the enzyme sucrase must be produced; in order for sucrase to be produced, some internal regulation must occur; if some internal regulation occurs, other effects are at least possible. But no such effect has been clearly demonstrated as far as I can tell.