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Non-Hodgkin lymphoma odds ratio 1.41-1.45 (AKA 41-45% higher relative risk): https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/31342895/

NHL odds ratio 2.26: https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/18623080/

Positive trend of NHL risk with exposure: https://pubmed.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/12937207/

7x risk of follicular lymphoma in those ever exposed: https://pmc.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/articles/PMC8082925/





Am I missing something about the last one?

Sample size: 867 cases. 2.2% exposed. Rounds to being 19 of those were exposed. How can they compute odds ratios like that with such a small sample?




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