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What you describe as "walk in front of a moving vehicle" could just as well be described as "drive into a pedestrian." Your very phrasing assumes guilt for one party and innocence for the other, when there's no particular reason to assign it that way.


Sidewalk = pedestrian Road = vehicle (car, bicycle, horse-drawn carriage)

If one crosses into the territory of the other without following a prescribed rule of law, who do you think should take responsibility?

In order for me to "drive into a pedestrian" I'd have to swing my car onto a crowded sidewalk, and unless a swarm of bees exits the car with me I'd have a hard time maintaining my innocence after that.


Why assume the road is exclusively the domain of cars? That once again assumes the very setup it argues for.


Zikes is incorrect. It is not "easily 99%".

http://www.theguardian.com/environment/bike-blog/2013/apr/16...


Easily 99.39%, actually. Only 0.61% of road use is cyclists.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transportation_in_the_United_S...


The claim you made was

> Easily 99% of roads were built for the operation of cars.

Which is what I was disputing.


In the US it's not at all an assumption. Easily 99% of roads were built for the operation of cars.

Everything else is just a dirt path, and I know people that have to drive on those if they want to go anywhere, too.




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